Originally Posted by Siraji
There are so many ways this could be written, and all of those flows better.Like,
tan( x )= sin (x) / cos (x).
so obviously the transmission coefficient of tunneliing phenomena, T = 1/(1+ D sinh(ka))
where D = (V^2)/(4*(E-V))
But now I realize one world vai had the right idea.
smh. tsk tsk tsk... you have outdid yourself siraji. in the words of a softcore q.rnstar "Don't the nerds ever sleep?"
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