[Arnab]

Is this 'inequality' rising only because of 'liberalization and globalization'? or just because of govt policy making failure?

Well, embracing liberalization and globalization is also part of government policies.

There must be other variables & terms like population birth rate, death rate, environmental change, disaster, international market ( oil, food, technology etc. ), international politics ( war, embargo etc. ), and may be many other things? Since these terms can change the cost ( in a short term ) of daily commodities and daily life so rapidly, the percentage of inequality may appear more rising and significant than old days.

Yes, all those variables factor into this. But also note we are not talking about short-term inequality. And I am not sure what you mean by "inequality" here either. It's certainly not what I think when I think of the economic term "inequality".

Here's the kind of definition of Inequality I have in mind:

"Economic inequality refers to disparities in the distribution of economic assets and income. The term typically refers to inequality among individuals and groups within a society..."

Besides, since life style is going to be more 'convenient' and costly in a rapid way, 'water system', 'decent housing' and 'good education' naturally get more costly, hence inequality appears here also.

Well, strictly speaking, inequality like this has been around all the time. We are considering whether this has increased in India.

Finally, how should we explain that without this high growth rate of India ( because of 'liberalization and globalization' ) would have caused 'less inequality' in their society?

Theoretically,

a) if the incomes and assets acquired by India during this high growth period were distributed among the Indian population in the previous unequal manner (just like it), then the inequality would have remained the same.

b) if the incomes and assets acquired by India during this high growth period were distributed among the Indian population MORE unequally than in the previous unequal manner, then the inequality would increase. In fact, this is what's happening in India right now.

c) if the incomes and assets acquired by India during this high growth were distributed among the Indian population less unequally (or more equally) than in the previous unequal manner, the inequality would have decreased.

One thing I can imagine, without this 'liberalization and globalization', India, China or even Bangladesh would be as much happy as those 'central asia country' is now. There might be less 'internal inequality' but the gulf of 'external inequality' ( xxxx vs world ) definitely exist ( of course not because of 'globalization' ), which they might have to face sooner or later, but in a hard and long way.

Alright, this is getting pretty vague and out of scope. I'd rather not comment.

In that sense, as long as India achieving high growth rate, decent position in world market and technology ... India is in right track at least.

Sure, but that's being on the right track in achieving different goals. But probably not on the right track in poverty alleviation. High growth rate, decent position in world market and technology, etc are not quite directly correlated to poverty alleviation.

If it is the question of govt. policy making on reducing poverty ... there must be always some room to improve.

Obviosuly. The room has gotten bigger in fact, with the inequality having risen over the decades, as the Gini Index shows.